John 20:28
What I got from the reading:
I realize now that his point is that, no matter, how a manuscript reads, it supports Jesus as theos.
I am a little confused by this assertion though. On the one hand, if it reads ho theos – which most pretty much all the manuscripts do – then it falls outside the Granville Sharp rule. But the author seems certain that this links Jesus and theos.
On the other hand, if it reads just theos – as it does in a single Western manuscript – then it links Jesus and theos because it falls under the Granville Sharp rule.
Since there are other passages of scripture where the Granville Sharp is called upon to show Christ’s deity, and this passage does not fall under that rule, I’m not sure what to make of the author’s assertions.