John 1:1c
What I got from the reading:
It is very likely that it is meant to read just theos and not ho theos. This is based on the facts that 1.) The most reliable texts read this way 2.)Two manuscripts that read ho theos are from the eighth century and likely have scribal errors in John 1:1c and 3.) Although Greek has only a definite article, Sahidic has both a definite and indefinite article; and, in Sahidic manuscripts, the indefinite article is used in John 1:1c. This suggests that the translator was translating from a Greek manuscript that lacked a definite article.
I actually think it is important that John 1:1c read without a definite article because it retains the idea that Jesus is part of God (His word), but distinct from God the Father. Thus, denying modalism. I know I’ve mentioned this before, but it reflects what we see in the Old Testament: There is the LORD and the messenger of the LORD – who is sometimes referred to as the LORD, but, as the messenger of the LORD, is distinctly separate.
Still, in the reading, the author makes the point that, with or without the definite article, “the God” could still be read in John 1:1c